Problem 370
Easy Infinite Products

Investigate the convergence of the infinite product

Investigate the convergence of the infinite product $\displaystyle\prod_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac1{n^2}$.

Explanation of Method

An infinite product $\prod a_n$ (with $a_n>0$) converges to a nonzero limit exactly when $\sum\ln a_n$ converges; here $\ln a_n=-2\ln n\to-\infty$ so quickly that the logarithmic series diverges to $-\infty$, forcing the product itself to $0$ — a degenerate but well-defined form of convergence.

  1. Apply the log-series convergence criterion to $a_n=1/n^2$.
  2. Show $\sum\ln n$ diverges to $+\infty$ via the integral test.
  3. Conclude and cross-check with the exact closed form $P_N=1/(N!)^2$.

Step 1 · The log-series criterion

With $a_n=1/n^2$: $\ln a_n=-2\ln n$, so $$ \sum_{n=1}^\infty\ln a_n=-2\sum_{n=1}^\infty\ln n. $$

Step 2 · $\sum\ln n$ diverges

By the integral test, $\displaystyle\int_2^N\ln x\,dx=[x\ln x-x]_2^N=N\ln N-N-2\ln2+2\to+\infty$ as $N\to\infty$, so $\sum_{n=1}^\infty\ln n=+\infty$, hence $\sum_{n=1}^\infty\ln a_n=-\infty$.

Step 3 · Conclusion and direct check

Since the log-series diverges to $-\infty$, the product converges to $0$: $$ \boxed{\prod_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac1{n^2}=0} $$ Directly, $P_N=\dfrac1{1^2\cdot2^2\cdots N^2}=\dfrac1{(N!)^2}$, and by Stirling's approximation $(N!)^2\sim2\pi N(N/e)^{2N}\to\infty$ super-exponentially, so $P_N\to0$. (Numerical check: $P_5=1/14400\approx6.94\times10^{-5}$, $P_{10}=1/(10!)^2\approx7.6\times10^{-14}$.)


Summary Table

PropertyValue
Partial product$P_N=\dfrac1{(N!)^2}$
Limit$0$
Log-series behaviordiverges to $-\infty$

Additional Notes

Result

$$ \prod_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac1{n^2}=0 \quad\text{(the product diverges to }0\text{).} $$