Problem 201
Medium Uniform Convergence

Test the uniform convergence of sum from n=1 to infinity

Test the uniform convergence of $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{x+n}$ on $x\in(0,\infty)$.

Explanation of Method

The Weierstrass M-test fails here (the natural bound $1/(x+n)\to1/n$ as $x\to0^+$, and $\sum1/n$ diverges). But the series is alternating with terms $a_n(x)=1/(x+n)$ decreasing in $n$ to $0$ for every fixed $x>0$, so the Leibniz remainder bound applies — and crucially, that bound is itself uniform in $x$, which is enough to prove uniform convergence directly, without needing the M-test at all.

  1. Confirm pointwise convergence via the Alternating Series Test.
  2. Bound the remainder using the Leibniz estimate, uniformly in $x$.
  3. Conclude uniform convergence directly from that $x$-independent bound.

Step 1 · Pointwise convergence

Fix $x>0$ and let $a_n=1/(x+n)$. Then $a_n>0$, $a_n$ is strictly decreasing in $n$, and $a_n\to0$. By the Leibniz (Alternating Series) Test, $\sum(-1)^na_n$ converges for every $x>0$.

Step 2 · A uniform remainder bound

For an alternating series with terms decreasing to $0$, the remainder after $N$ terms satisfies the standard estimate $$ |R_N(x)| = \left|\sum_{n=N+1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{x+n}\right| \le a_{N+1}(x) = \frac1{x+N+1}. $$ Since $x>0$: $x+N+1>N+1$, so $$ |R_N(x)| < \frac1{N+1} $$ for every $x\in(0,\infty)$ — the bound $1/(N+1)$ does not depend on $x$ at all.

Step 3 · Uniform convergence

Taking the supremum over $x>0$: $$ \sup_{x>0}|R_N(x)| \le \frac1{N+1} \longrightarrow 0 \text{ as } N\to\infty. $$ This is precisely the definition of uniform convergence: given $\epsilon>0$, choose $N$ with $1/(N+1)<\epsilon$; then $|R_n(x)|<\epsilon$ for every $n\ge N$ and every $x\in(0,\infty)$ simultaneously. So the series converges uniformly on $(0,\infty)$ (and the same bound extends this to $[0,\infty)$).


Summary Table

TestOutcome
Weierstrass M-testFails ($\sum1/n$ diverges)
Uniform Leibniz remainder bound$|R_N(x)|\le1/(N+1)$, works
Uniform convergence on $(0,\infty)$Yes

Additional Notes

Result

Converges uniformly on $(0,\infty)$ (Weierstrass M-test fails, but the uniform Leibniz bound succeeds):

$$ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{x+n} \text{ converges uniformly on } (0,\infty). $$