Problem 153
Easy Numerical and Functional Series

Prove that: sum from m,n=2 to infinity

Prove that: $$ \sum_{m,n=2}^{\infty} \frac1{(p+n)^m}=\frac1{p+1} \qquad (p>-1). $$

Explanation of Method

All terms are positive (since $p+n>0$ for $p>-1$, $n\ge2$), so the order of summation is immaterial. Summing the geometric series over $m$ first for fixed $n$ produces $1/[(p+n)(p+n-1)]$, and the resulting single series over $n$ telescopes via partial fractions.

  1. Sum the inner geometric series over $m$ for fixed $n$.
  2. Decompose the result via partial fractions.
  3. Evaluate the telescoping outer sum over $n$.

Step 1 · Inner geometric sum

For fixed $n\ge2$, with ratio $\frac1{p+n}$ (which has magnitude $<1$ since $p+n>p+2>1$): $$ \sum_{m=2}^{\infty}\frac1{(p+n)^m} = \frac{1/(p+n)^2}{1-1/(p+n)} = \frac1{(p+n)(p+n-1)}. $$

Step 2 · Partial fractions

$\dfrac1{(p+n)(p+n-1)}=\dfrac1{p+n-1}-\dfrac1{p+n}$.

Step 3 · Telescoping outer sum

$$ \sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\left(\frac1{p+n-1}-\frac1{p+n}\right) = \lim_{N\to\infty}\left(\frac1{p+1}-\frac1{p+N}\right) = \frac1{p+1}. $$ Verified for $p=1$: sum equals $\frac12$, matching $\frac1{p+1}=\frac12$; for $p=0$: sum equals $1=\frac1{0+1}$.


Summary Table

StepResult
Inner sum$1/[(p+n)(p+n-1)]$
Outer sumTelescopes to $1/(p+1)$

Additional Notes

Result

The identity is proven:

$$ \sum_{m,n=2}^{\infty} \frac1{(p+n)^m} = \frac1{p+1}, \qquad p>-1. $$