Problem 98
Hard Special Techniques

Calculate the improper integral: integral from 0 to ()

Calculate the improper integral: $$ \int_0^\infty e^{-ax}\sin(bx) \, dx $$

Explanation of Method

This integral is evaluated using integration by parts twice (or, equivalently, by writing the trigonometric factor as the real or imaginary part of a complex exponential) to solve algebraically for the integral, exploiting exponential decay to guarantee convergence at infinity.

This is the companion integral to the one we just solved. It combines exponential decay with sine oscillation.

Step 1: Express as a limit

$$\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}\sin(bx) \, dx = \lim_{R \to \infty} \int_0^R e^{-ax}\sin(bx) \, dx$$

Step 2: Find the antiderivative using integration by parts

Let's denote:

$$I = \int e^{-ax}\sin(bx) \, dx$$

First integration by parts:

Let $u = \sin(bx)$ and $dv = e^{-ax} \, dx$

Then: $du = b\cos(bx) \, dx$ and $v = -\frac{1}{a}e^{-ax}$

$$I = -\frac{1}{a}e^{-ax}\sin(bx) - \int -\frac{1}{a}e^{-ax} \cdot b\cos(bx) \, dx$$

$$= -\frac{1}{a}e^{-ax}\sin(bx) + \frac{b}{a}\int e^{-ax}\cos(bx) \, dx$$

Second integration by parts:

For $\int e^{-ax}\cos(bx) \, dx$, let $u = \cos(bx)$ and $dv = e^{-ax} \, dx$

Then: $du = -b\sin(bx) \, dx$ and $v = -\frac{1}{a}e^{-ax}$

$$\int e^{-ax}\cos(bx) \, dx = -\frac{1}{a}e^{-ax}\cos(bx) - \int -\frac{1}{a}e^{-ax} \cdot (-b\sin(bx)) \, dx$$

$$= -\frac{1}{a}e^{-ax}\cos(bx) - \frac{b}{a}\int e^{-ax}\sin(bx) \, dx$$

$$= -\frac{1}{a}e^{-ax}\cos(bx) - \frac{b}{a}I$$

Substitute back:

$$I = -\frac{1}{a}e^{-ax}\sin(bx) + \frac{b}{a}\left[-\frac{1}{a}e^{-ax}\cos(bx) - \frac{b}{a}I\right]$$

$$= -\frac{1}{a}e^{-ax}\sin(bx) - \frac{b}{a^2}e^{-ax}\cos(bx) - \frac{b^2}{a^2}I$$

Solve for $I$:

$$I + \frac{b^2}{a^2}I = -\frac{1}{a}e^{-ax}\sin(bx) - \frac{b}{a^2}e^{-ax}\cos(bx)$$

$$I\left(1 + \frac{b^2}{a^2}\right) = e^{-ax}\left(-\frac{1}{a}\sin(bx) - \frac{b}{a^2}\cos(bx)\right)$$

$$I \cdot \frac{a^2 + b^2}{a^2} = e^{-ax}\left(\frac{-a\sin(bx) - b\cos(bx)}{a^2}\right)$$

$$I = \frac{e^{-ax}}{a^2 + b^2}(-a\sin(bx) - b\cos(bx))$$

Step 3: Evaluate the definite integral

$$\int_0^R e^{-ax}\sin(bx) \, dx = \left[\frac{e^{-ax}(-a\sin(bx) - b\cos(bx))}{a^2 + b^2}\right]_0^R$$

At $x = R$:

$$\frac{e^{-aR}(-a\sin(bR) - b\cos(bR))}{a^2 + b^2}$$

At $x = 0$:

$$\frac{e^0(-a\sin 0 - b\cos 0)}{a^2 + b^2} = \frac{1 \cdot (0 - b \cdot 1)}{a^2 + b^2} = \frac{-b}{a^2 + b^2}$$

Therefore:

$$\int_0^R e^{-ax}\sin(bx) \, dx = \frac{e^{-aR}(-a\sin(bR) - b\cos(bR))}{a^2 + b^2} - \frac{-b}{a^2 + b^2}$$

$$= \frac{e^{-aR}(-a\sin(bR) - b\cos(bR)) + b}{a^2 + b^2}$$

Step 4: Take the limit

$$\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}\sin(bx) \, dx = \lim_{R \to \infty} \frac{e^{-aR}(-a\sin(bR) - b\cos(bR)) + b}{a^2 + b^2}$$

Case 1: $a > 0$

As $R \to \infty$: $e^{-aR} \to 0$

Since $|\sin(bR)| \leq 1$ and $|\cos(bR)| \leq 1$:

$$|e^{-aR}(-a\sin(bR) - b\cos(bR))| \leq e^{-aR}(a + b) \to 0$$

Therefore:

$$\lim_{R \to \infty} e^{-aR}(-a\sin(bR) - b\cos(bR)) = 0$$

Thus:

$$\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}\sin(bx) \, dx = \frac{0 + b}{a^2 + b^2} = \frac{b}{a^2 + b^2}$$

Case 2: $a \leq 0$

If $a = 0$: the integral becomes $\int_0^\infty \sin(bx) \, dx$, which diverges (by oscillation).

If $a < 0$: $e^{-aR} = e^{|a|R} \to +\infty$, so the limit doesn't exist and the integral diverges.

Final Answer

$$\boxed{\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}\sin(bx) \, dx = \begin{cases} \dfrac{b}{a^2 + b^2} & \text{if } a > 0 \quad \text{(converges)}\\[10pt] \text{divergent} & \text{if } a \leq 0 \end{cases}}$$

Special cases

Case 1: $a = 1, b = 0$

$$\int_0^\infty e^{-x}\sin(0) \, dx = \int_0^\infty 0 \, dx = 0 = \frac{0}{1 + 0}$$

Case 2: $a = 1, b = 1$

$$\int_0^\infty e^{-x}\sin(x) \, dx = \frac{1}{1 + 1} = \frac{1}{2}$$

Case 3: $a = 2, b = 3$

$$\int_0^\infty e^{-2x}\sin(3x) \, dx = \frac{3}{4 + 9} = \frac{3}{13}$$

Case 4: $a = 1, b = 2$

$$\int_0^\infty e^{-x}\sin(2x) \, dx = \frac{2}{1 + 4} = \frac{2}{5}$$

Relationship with the cosine integral

We now have the pair:

$$\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}\cos(bx) \, dx = \frac{a}{a^2 + b^2} \quad \text{(for } a > 0\text{)}$$

$$\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}\sin(bx) \, dx = \frac{b}{a^2 + b^2} \quad \text{(for } a > 0\text{)}$$

Beautiful property:

$$\left(\frac{a}{a^2 + b^2}\right)^2 + \left(\frac{b}{a^2 + b^2}\right)^2 = \frac{a^2 + b^2}{(a^2 + b^2)^2} = \frac{1}{a^2 + b^2}$$

This Pythagorean relationship reflects the orthogonality of sine and cosine!

Complex exponential approach (alternative method)

Using Euler's formula: $\sin(bx) = \text{Im}(e^{ibx})$

$$\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}\sin(bx) \, dx = \text{Im}\left(\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}e^{ibx} \, dx\right)$$

$$= \text{Im}\left(\int_0^\infty e^{-(a-ib)x} \, dx\right)$$

$$= \text{Im}\left(\left[\frac{e^{-(a-ib)x}}{-(a-ib)}\right]_0^\infty\right)$$

For $a > 0$:

$$= \text{Im}\left(\frac{0 - 1}{-(a-ib)}\right) = \text{Im}\left(\frac{1}{a-ib}\right)$$

Multiply by conjugate:

$$= \text{Im}\left(\frac{1}{a-ib} \cdot \frac{a+ib}{a+ib}\right) = \text{Im}\left(\frac{a+ib}{a^2+b^2}\right) = \frac{b}{a^2+b^2}$$

This confirms our answer! ✓

Verification using derivative

Let's verify the antiderivative. If:

$$F(x) = \frac{e^{-ax}(-a\sin(bx) - b\cos(bx))}{a^2 + b^2}$$

Then using the product rule and chain rule:

$$F'(x) = \frac{1}{a^2+b^2}\left[(-a)e^{-ax}(-a\sin(bx) - b\cos(bx)) + e^{-ax}(-ab\cos(bx) + b^2\sin(bx))\right]$$

$$= \frac{e^{-ax}}{a^2+b^2}\left[a^2\sin(bx) + ab\cos(bx) - ab\cos(bx) + b^2\sin(bx)\right]$$

$$= \frac{e^{-ax}}{a^2+b^2}(a^2 + b^2)\sin(bx) = e^{-ax}\sin(bx)$$

Correct! ✓

Laplace transform interpretation

The Laplace transform of $\sin(bt)$ is:

$$\mathcal{L}\{\sin(bt)\} = \int_0^\infty e^{-st}\sin(bt) \, dt = \frac{b}{s^2 + b^2}$$

This is exactly our result with $a = s$. This is a fundamental Laplace transform!

Physical interpretation

The function $e^{-at}\sin(bt)$ represents:

The integral $\frac{b}{a^2+b^2}$ represents the total "energy" or "impulse" over all time.

Comparison: cosine vs. sine

$$\begin{array}{c|c|c} \text{Function} & \text{Initial value} & \text{Integral} \\ \hline e^{-ax}\cos(bx) & 1 \text{ (at } x=0\text{)} & \dfrac{a}{a^2+b^2} \\[10pt] e^{-ax}\sin(bx) & 0 \text{ (at } x=0\text{)} & \dfrac{b}{a^2+b^2} \end{array}$$

The cosine starts at maximum, the sine starts at zero - this is reflected in the numerators!

Linear combination

For any constants $\alpha$ and $\beta$:

$$\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}[\alpha\cos(bx) + \beta\sin(bx)] \, dx = \frac{\alpha a + \beta b}{a^2 + b^2}$$

This can be written as:

$$= \frac{1}{a^2+b^2}\sqrt{(\alpha a)^2 + (\beta b)^2} \cdot \cos(\phi)$$

where $\phi$ is an appropriate phase angle.

Summary

  1. The integral combines exponential decay with sine oscillation
  2. Integration by parts (twice) gives the antiderivative
  3. Convergence requires $a > 0$ (exponential decay)
  4. When convergent: $\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}\sin(bx) \, dx = \frac{b}{a^2 + b^2}$
  5. Companion result: $\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}\cos(bx) \, dx = \frac{a}{a^2 + b^2}$
  6. These are fundamental Laplace transforms

Key lessons:


Result

$$\boxed{\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}\sin(bx) \, dx = \begin{cases} \dfrac{b}{a^2 + b^2} & \text{if } a > 0 \quad \text{(converges)}\\[10pt] \text{divergent} & \text{if } a \leq 0 \end{cases}}$$