Calculate the improper integral: integral from a to ()
Calculate the improper integral: $$ \int_a^\infty \frac{dx}{x\ln^2 x} $$ (where $a > 1$)
Explanation of Method
This is an improper integral (an infinite integration limit, or an integrand that is unbounded at an interior point or an endpoint). It is evaluated by rewriting it as a limit of a proper integral and determining whether that limit exists and is finite.
This is an improper integral at infinity. We assume $a > 1$ so that $\ln a > 0$ and the integrand is well-defined throughout $[a, \infty)$.
Step 1: Express as a limit
$$\int_a^\infty \frac{dx}{x\ln^2 x} = \lim_{R \to \infty} \int_a^R \frac{dx}{x\ln^2 x}$$
Step 2: Find the antiderivative using substitution
Let $u = \ln x$, so $du = \frac{dx}{x}$.
When $x = a$: $u = \ln a$
When $x = R$: $u = \ln R$
The integral becomes:
$$\int_a^R \frac{dx}{x\ln^2 x} = \int_{\ln a}^{\ln R} \frac{du}{u^2}$$
This is a standard integral:
$$\int \frac{du}{u^2} = \int u^{-2} \, du = -\frac{1}{u} + C$$
Therefore, the antiderivative of $\frac{1}{x\ln^2 x}$ is:
$$-\frac{1}{\ln x} + C$$
Step 3: Evaluate the definite integral
$$\int_a^R \frac{dx}{x\ln^2 x} = \left[-\frac{1}{\ln x}\right]_a^R = -\frac{1}{\ln R} - \left(-\frac{1}{\ln a}\right)$$
$$= \frac{1}{\ln a} - \frac{1}{\ln R}$$
Step 4: Take the limit
$$\int_a^\infty \frac{dx}{x\ln^2 x} = \lim_{R \to \infty} \left(\frac{1}{\ln a} - \frac{1}{\ln R}\right)$$
As $R \to \infty$:
$$\ln R \to +\infty \implies \frac{1}{\ln R} \to 0$$
Therefore:
$$\int_a^\infty \frac{dx}{x\ln^2 x} = \frac{1}{\ln a} - 0 = \frac{1}{\ln a}$$
Final Answer
$$\boxed{\int_a^\infty \frac{dx}{x\ln^2 x} = \frac{1}{\ln a} \quad \text{(for } a > 1 \text{)}}$$
The integral converges to $\frac{1}{\ln a}$.
Special cases
Case 1: $a = e$
$$\int_e^\infty \frac{dx}{x\ln^2 x} = \frac{1}{\ln e} = \frac{1}{1} = 1$$
Case 2: $a = 2$
$$\int_2^\infty \frac{dx}{x\ln^2 x} = \frac{1}{\ln 2} \approx 1.443$$
Case 3: $a = 10$
$$\int_{10}^\infty \frac{dx}{x\ln^2 x} = \frac{1}{\ln 10} \approx 0.434$$
Why the integral converges
The substitution $u = \ln x$ transforms the integral to:
$$\int_{\ln a}^\infty \frac{du}{u^2}$$
This is of the form $\int_b^\infty \frac{du}{u^p}$ with $p = 2 > 1$.
We know that $\int_1^\infty \frac{dx}{x^p}$ converges if and only if $p > 1$.
Since $p = 2 > 1$, the integral converges! ✓
Comparison with related integrals
Case 1: $\int_a^\infty \frac{dx}{x\ln x}$
Using $u = \ln x$:
$$= \int_{\ln a}^\infty \frac{du}{u} = \lim_{R \to \infty} [\ln u]_{\ln a}^{\ln R} = \lim_{R \to \infty} (\ln(\ln R) - \ln(\ln a)) = +\infty$$
This integral diverges! ✗
Case 2: $\int_a^\infty \frac{dx}{x\ln^2 x}$
This is our integral, which converges to $\frac{1}{\ln a}$. ✓
Case 3: $\int_a^\infty \frac{dx}{x\ln^3 x}$
Using $u = \ln x$:
$$= \int_{\ln a}^\infty \frac{du}{u^3} = \left[-\frac{1}{2u^2}\right]_{\ln a}^\infty = 0 - \left(-\frac{1}{2(\ln a)^2}\right) = \frac{1}{2(\ln a)^2}$$
This also converges. ✓
General rule:
$$\int_a^\infty \frac{dx}{x(\ln x)^n} \text{ converges} \iff n > 1$$
This is analogous to the standard $p$-test!
Connection to the integral test
This result is directly related to the convergence of series via the integral test.
Consider the series:
$$\sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{1}{n(\ln n)^2}$$
By the integral test, this series converges if and only if:
$$\int_2^\infty \frac{dx}{x(\ln x)^2}$$
converges, which we've shown it does (to $\frac{1}{\ln 2}$).
Therefore, the series $\sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{1}{n(\ln n)^2}$ converges! ✓
In contrast, the series $\sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{1}{n\ln n}$ diverges because $\int_2^\infty \frac{dx}{x\ln x}$ diverges.
Geometric interpretation
The function $f(x) = \frac{1}{x\ln^2 x}$ for $x \geq a > 1$ has these properties:
- Decreasing function
- Approaches 0 as $x \to \infty$
- Decays faster than $\frac{1}{x\ln x}$ but slower than $\frac{1}{x^{1+\varepsilon}}$ for any $\varepsilon > 0$
- The area under the curve from $a$ to $\infty$ is finite (equals $\frac{1}{\ln a}$)
Behavior as $a$ varies
As $a$ increases from $e$ to $\infty$:
$$\frac{1}{\ln a} \text{ decreases from } 1 \text{ to } 0$$
- As $a \to e^+$: $\ln a \to 1^+$, so $\frac{1}{\ln a} \to 1$
- As $a \to \infty$: $\ln a \to +\infty$, so $\frac{1}{\ln a} \to 0$
This makes sense: starting the integral further out (larger $a$) captures less area.
Relationship to logarithmic decay
Functions that decay like $\frac{1}{x(\ln x)^n}$ represent "logarithmic decay" - slower than polynomial decay but faster than pure logarithmic growth.
The hierarchy of decay rates near infinity:
- Polynomial: $\frac{1}{x^p}$ (converges for $p > 1$)
- Logarithmic-polynomial: $\frac{1}{x(\ln x)^n}$ (converges for $n > 1$)
- Pure logarithmic: $\frac{1}{\ln x}$ (diverges)
Direct evaluation (formal)
We can write formally:
$$\int_a^\infty \frac{dx}{x\ln^2 x} = \left[-\frac{1}{\ln x}\right]_a^\infty$$
At $x = \infty$:
$$\lim_{x \to \infty} \left(-\frac{1}{\ln x}\right) = -\frac{1}{+\infty} = 0$$
At $x = a$:
$$-\frac{1}{\ln a}$$
Therefore:
$$0 - \left(-\frac{1}{\ln a}\right) = \frac{1}{\ln a}$$
Summary
- The integral has an improper limit at $x = \infty$
- Using the substitution $u = \ln x$ transforms it to: $$ \int_{\ln a}^\infty \frac{du}{u^2} $$
- The antiderivative is $-\frac{1}{\ln x}$
- Evaluating from $a$ to $\infty$: $$ \left[-\frac{1}{\ln x}\right]_a^\infty = 0 - \left(-\frac{1}{\ln a}\right) = \frac{1}{\ln a} $$
- The integral converges because it's equivalent to $\int \frac{du}{u^2}$ with exponent 2 > 1
- Result: $\int_a^\infty \frac{dx}{x\ln^2 x} = \frac{1}{\ln a}$ (for $a > 1$)
Key lessons:
- The substitution $u = \ln x$ is essential for logarithmic integrands
- General rule: $\int_a^\infty \frac{dx}{x(\ln x)^n}$ converges if and only if $n > 1$
- This parallels the power rule: $\int_1^\infty \frac{dx}{x^p}$ converges if and only if $p > 1$
- The critical exponent is $n = 1$ (logarithmic boundary)
- Useful for the integral test in series convergence
- Logarithmic factors provide a "borderline" between convergence and divergence
Result
$$\boxed{\int_a^\infty \frac{dx}{x\ln^2 x} = \frac{1}{\ln a} \quad \text{(for } a > 1 \text{)}}$$